Hi! Long time no see.
I made a comment in Kasey Mohammad's blog Comment Box last
week (9/27/03, cc-ed to the Poetics List), about the "line-breaks" in
a Linda Pastan poem that he was reading and how the same line-breaks (identical
scansion for similar sequences of [3-syllable] lines) occur throughout William
Carlos Williams' poetry and others Modernists'.
Partially because the follow-up involved my being
"back-channeled" by someone who aggressively felt that my reading of
"meter"/scansion in Pastan's and 20th/21st
century poetry was a sheer, quixotic illusion on my part, I am left with an
uncomfortable sense about what the hell
lines/verses are, nowadays. And what
we're doing with them, why we're still using them.
I'm curious to ask others' experience with this question,
both in your own poetic practice and your reading of others' ("free
verse") poetry. I'm hoping you might have some feedback.
Do you write lines/make "line-breaks" with some
conscious/semi-conscious sense of why
you are making those choices (that can be explained)? Do you feel that there's
a "meter" involved, even though it isn't conventional New Formalist
meter? Do you feel that there is some rationale to what you're doing, but that
it's carried out on an "intuitive" level? Do you have a free sense
that there is no reason behind your lineations and feel that that's a liberated,
"modern" position?
Is the perseveration of poetry
into an appearance of "verse"/lines simply some sort of nominal,
vestigial, semiotic cue to a bygone era that's meant to re-classify (re-dialecticize) the writing into Poetry (hence, privileging
it to all sorts of liberties you do not make in your prose)? What would it say
about the continuing practice of lineation if it's so vastly widespread but
something no one has any conscious insight into?
Etc.
I realize that the whole issue of the "line" may
seem hopelessly passé and outmoded to many — but since I'm finding my own
resources that I bring to the question to be more than inconclusive, I thought
I'd ask.
Recommended readings you find decisive in regards to this
would be appreciated, too. (I recall reading a Marjorie Perloff chapter on the
subject where, as I remember it, her conclusion is that no identifiable
"justification" can be found for the "free verse" line. And
I react to the Projectivist/Olson "breath"/"instanter
upon another" explanation as itself ultimately being quixotic and illusionistic.)
Thanks.
Jeffrey
The great
linebreak debates of the 1960s were one of those you-had-to-be-there kinds of
things. An enormous amount of energy & passion was expended on just this
question during that decade, so much so that the line’s absence is a major
subtext in a work from the ‘70s like Ketjak.
Case in
point: Denise Levertov once invited David Bromige, Lynn Strongin
& your humble correspondent to read to one of her writing classes at UC
Berkeley. During the session, a student asked if a linebreak had more of a pause
than a comma or period. Levertov responded with a very prescriptive “it’s
one-half the pause of a comma” answer to which David & I both piped up
almost simultaneously that Levertov had it exactly backwards. A relatively
heated (& none too pleasant) little discussion was then held by all. The
reality (in retrospect) was that all three of us were being completely
stubborn.
Even more
importantly, all three of us held an idea that there was such a thing as a correct linebreak, that it was something
you could indeed get wrong. The projectivist interpretation of Williams had
been to align the line with a conception of speech, as if the same text might
not be spoken with different “breath units” for
emphasis, or even just because one happened to do it that way that day.
Levertov’s position was actually closer to what somebody might have come up
with paying more direct attention to the way Williams or Zukofsky (and
especially him) read their works aloud. Bromige & I were coming at the same
question the way somebody who’d primarily listened to Creeley, Olson or Duncan
– i.e. the next generation – read their works. Indeed, as I’ve noted in other
contexts,
The mistake
that David, Denise & I were all making wasn’t calibrating line breaks with
“traditional” or “prose” punctuation elements, ½ comma
vs. 2 commas, but rather the idea that, in the abstract, there could be such a
thing as a correct answer at all. It is not that linebreaks are not meaningful,
but rather that their meaning is not fixed. Like the use of rhyme, sound,
metaphor, persona – any element you choose to pick –
it depends entirely upon the context, the individual poem. Now, there may be
obvious advantages for an individual poet to settle on a particular strategy so
as to set expectations appropriately for her or his readers, but it’s not a
requirement.
Just as one
can find Jack Spicer poems that are clearly intended to be read with end stops
– the well-known “Ferlinghetti” from Heads
of the Town, for example – there are many poems there & in his other
books that are not. Creeley’s use of end stops is different in For Love, Pieces and Life & Death. Similarly, one reason
that so many new formalists don’t simply blush to death with embarrassment over
their hokey tone-deaf metrics is that most literally don’t intend for the
linebreak to be heard at all. If you hear the line
To ask what
the meaning of a line break is, let alone the “correct” meaning, is akin to
asking what an edge is in sculpture. Well, it depends. Part of what is so
interesting about a well-written poem is how quickly & deftly it
communicates to the reader what sort of line it is using, which invariably
depends significantly (tho not entirely) on the use of the
There are
some general dynamics that do seem to apply to the line & which one can
identify in any poem (regardless of school or aesthetics) – the word that
receives the greatest emphasis tends to be the last (although this can be
shifted via prosody), the word that receives the second greatest tends to be
the first. If a caesura is in play – less & less these days, at least on
the post-avant side of the street – the last word prior to the caesura may
actually receive greater emphasis than the line’s first word. And so forth. But
these aren’t rules so much as forces that different poets will exploit
differently to reach desired effects during the course of writing. And those
desired effects could be anything.
So, yes,
Marjorie would be right in assert that no justification
exists for “the free verse line” – which is not one thing but a couple of
hundred thousand – but the larger issue is that “justification” is not the
point. Again, to pose sculpture as an analog here, what is the justification
for an edge? In a Sol Lewitt or,
just for fun, Jeff Koons? Sculptors use edge as part of an ensemble of
things to think about as they proceed about their work. But edge is to
sculpture quite a bit like the line. Sculpture has – regardless of the medium
or aesthetics – mass & dimension & it comes to a stop. And wherever it
comes to a stop, one finds an edge. But to say that it defines sculpture the
way some criticism has claimed that role for the line in poetry is, I think,
missing the actual dynamics of how work gets done & what the work actually
is.
Now I do
cringe when I see poets who haven’t thought through the line – including (but
not limited to) the line break – it’s far too common, though how shocking is it
really that not all poetry is the best? But so what? I can find dramatically
different kinds of lines in the writing of Eleni Sikelianos &